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CEN Question of the Day

Sharpen your emergency nursing prep with a fresh CEN practice question, updated daily.

10 September 2026 Share on X Share on LinkedIn
Subject: Gastrointestinal EmergenciesGastrointestinal EmergenciesUpper and lower gastrointestinal bleeding
Question
The 52-year-old patient arrives by private vehicle to the community ED, pale and lethargic. Her spouse reports she had a sudden onset of large-volume, dark-red emesis mixed with clots approximately 30 minutes prior to arrival, followed by several episodes of melena at home. The patient has a known history of alcoholic cirrhosis and portal hypertension. On assessment, her skin is cool and clammy, capillary refill is delayed at 4 seconds, and peripheral pulses are thready. Initial vital signs are blood pressure 86/48 mmHg, heart rate 132 bpm, respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, and SpO2 94% on room air.

Peripheral intravenous access has been established with two large-bore catheters, and a rapid crystalloid infusion is initiated. The patient is type and cross-matched, and blood products are on their way from the blood bank. The emergency physician orders several medications to address the active gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

Which medication should the emergency nurse anticipate and prepare for immediate administration based on the patient's presentation and history?

Select an Answer
Rationale:
The patient's history of alcoholic cirrhosis and portal hypertension, coupled with large-volume hematemesis and melena, strongly suggests an active variceal hemorrhage. In this critical situation, octreotide is the priority pharmacologic intervention. Octreotide acts by reducing splanchnic blood flow and portal pressure, thereby decreasing bleeding from esophageal or gastric varices. It is a time-critical medication that should be initiated promptly in the emergency department concurrently with fluid resuscitation and blood product administration, per emergency nursing standards of care for suspected variceal bleeding.

While intravenous pantoprazole (a proton pump inhibitor) is often used for non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not the primary treatment for active variceal hemorrhage. Vasopressin has historically been used for variceal bleeding but is associated with significant systemic vasoconstrictive side effects (e.g., myocardial ischemia, mesenteric ischemia) and is generally less favored than octreotide in current practice due to its less favorable side effect profile. Oral lactulose is used to treat or prevent hepatic encephalopathy by reducing ammonia levels and has no role in the immediate control of active gastrointestinal bleeding.

9 September 2026 Share on X Share on LinkedIn
Subject: Neurological EmergenciesNeurological EmergenciesHeadache red flags
Question
A 30-year-old female, G2P1 at 30 weeks gestation, is brought to the Level I trauma center by EMS after experiencing a sudden, severe headache described as the 'worst headache of her life.' She reports the headache peaked within seconds and is associated with photophobia and generalized malaise. Her past medical history is notable for gestational hypertension in her previous pregnancy.

On arrival, her blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, heart rate 98 bpm, respiratory rate 18 bpm, SpO2 96% on room air, and temperature 99.8°F (37.7°C). Neurological exam reveals sluggish pupillary responses bilaterally and a new-onset left upper extremity drift. The patient is lethargic but arousable to verbal stimuli. Initial point-of-care urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria.

Given these findings, which of the following immediate interventions is the highest priority for this patient?

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Rationale:
The patient presents with several critical red flags for acute intracranial pathology: a sudden, severe 'thunderclap' headache described as the 'worst headache of her life,' new-onset focal neurological deficits (left upper extremity drift, sluggish pupils), altered mental status (lethargy), and severe hypertension. While the severe hypertension and proteinuria at 30 weeks gestation are highly suggestive of preeclampsia with severe features, the acute onset of the thunderclap headache combined with focal neurological deficits significantly increases the suspicion for an acute intracranial hemorrhage, such as a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) or intraparenchymal hemorrhage, or Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome (PRES). These conditions require immediate diagnosis to guide time-critical interventions and prevent irreversible neurological damage or death.

Facilitating an emergent non-contrast computed tomography (CT) of the head is the highest priority intervention to rapidly diagnose or rule out acute intracranial hemorrhage or other structural abnormalities. While initiating magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and administering antihypertensives for severe hypertension are crucial interventions for preeclampsia, they must be guided by the underlying cause of the acute neurological decline. An emergent CT scan is essential to differentiate between conditions like SAH, hemorrhagic stroke, or PRES, each of which has distinct management strategies. An obstetrical consultation is also important, but secondary to stabilizing the immediate neurological emergency and obtaining a critical diagnostic imaging study that will dictate further management and consultations.

8 September 2026 Share on X Share on LinkedIn
Subject: Behavioral Health and Psychosocial EmergenciesBehavioral Health and Psychosocial EmergenciesSuicidal ideation and risk assessment
Question
Law enforcement arrives in the emergency department with a 52-year-old male, Mr. Thompson, who was found sitting in his car in a public park after concerned family members reported recent posts on social media expressing hopelessness. Officers report he was cooperative but tearful, admitting to consuming "a few beers" and feeling overwhelmed by recent job loss and marital separation.

On initial assessment, Mr. Thompson is alert, oriented to person and place, but states the current date incorrectly. He is disheveled with a strong odor of alcohol on his breath. He explicitly admits to active suicidal ideation, stating, "I just want to end it all. I have a loaded handgun at home, and I know exactly how I would do it if I weren't here." Vital signs are T 37.1°C, HR 98, RR 18, BP 142/88, SpO2 99% on room air. His GCS is 15, but his speech is slightly slurred, and he appears fatigued.

As the triage nurse, what is the most appropriate initial action and ESI acuity level assignment for Mr. Thompson?

Select an Answer
Rationale:
The correct option prioritizes immediate patient safety, which is paramount in the emergency department for any patient with active suicidal ideation, a specific plan, and access to lethal means. The consumption of alcohol further impairs judgment and increases impulsivity, significantly elevating the risk of self-harm. Immediate 1:1 observation in a secure, ligature-free environment prevents the patient from acting on suicidal impulses while in the ED. An ESI level 2 is appropriate because the patient represents a high-risk situation requiring many resources (1:1 observation, rapid physician and psychiatric evaluation) but is currently hemodynamically stable, not meeting ESI 1 criteria for immediate life-threat based on vital signs.

Placing the patient in a general waiting area with only periodic checks (Distractor 2) or a standard treatment room without immediate 1:1 observation (Distractor 4) is unsafe and puts the patient at severe risk for self-harm given the expressed intent, specific plan, and means. While medical clearance, IV hydration, and routine labs are important aspects of care for an intoxicated patient, they are secondary to immediate safety and should not delay 1:1 observation and rapid psychiatric evaluation. Transferring to a resuscitation bay for continuous cardiac monitoring and intubation preparedness (Distractor 3) is an over-triage; the patient's vital signs are stable, and GCS is 15, indicating no immediate need for aggressive airway or hemodynamic interventions at this time.

7 September 2026 Share on X Share on LinkedIn
Subject: Maxillofacial, Ocular, and Dental EmergenciesMaxillofacial, Ocular, and Dental EmergenciesForeign bodies of the eye, ear, or nose
Question
The emergency department trauma team is preparing for the arrival of a 30-week pregnant patient, transferred via helicopter from an outlying facility, following a high-velocity injury from a metal fragment while operating farm machinery. EMS reports the patient experienced a direct strike to the left side of her face and head. On arrival, she is on a backboard with a C-collar in place, visibly agitated, and actively bleeding from the left orbital area.

Her vital signs are BP 92/60 mmHg, HR 122 bpm, RR 26 bpm, SpO2 94% on 6L nasal cannula, GCS 14 (confused to time). Fetal heart tones (FHTs) are auscultated at 170 bpm with occasional late decelerations noted on the external monitor when briefly applied. She complains of severe, excruciating pain in her left eye, describing complete vision loss in that eye, and significant difficulty breathing through her left nostril. Examination reveals a visibly deformed left globe with prolapsed uveal tissue and clear fluid leakage, a small, irregular metallic fragment embedded superficially in the inferior eyelid margin, and extensive periorbital ecchymosis and edema. The left nasal passage is completely obstructed by what appears to be a firm, cartilaginous fragment, causing marked inspiratory stridor.

Based on this presentation, which immediate intervention is the highest priority for the emergency nurse?

Select an Answer
Rationale:
The patient's presentation of marked inspiratory stridor and complete obstruction of the left nasal passage indicates a critical and rapidly evolving airway compromise. Airway patency is the absolute highest priority in any trauma patient, especially one with altered mental status (GCS 14, confused) and compromised oxygenation (SpO2 94% on 6L nasal cannula). Failure to secure the airway will lead to inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, severely impacting cerebral and fetal perfusion, and is an immediate life threat.

While the globe rupture, hemodynamic instability, and fetal distress are serious concerns requiring urgent intervention, effective management of these issues depends on a patent airway and adequate oxygenation. Addressing the airway compromise by relieving the obstruction and preparing for definitive airway management (e.g., intubation, tracheostomy, cricothyrotomy depending on etiology and facility resources) is the critical first step to stabilize the patient and allow for subsequent interventions for her other injuries and the fetal well-being, consistent with advanced trauma life support (ATLS) principles and emergency nursing standards of care.

6 September 2026 Share on X Share on LinkedIn
Subject: Medical Emergencies: Immunologic, Hematologic, and EndocrineMedical Emergencies: Immunologic, Hematologic, and EndocrineThyroid storm and myxedema coma
Question
A 85-year-old male is emergently brought by EMS to your Level I trauma center after being found unresponsive at home. His wife reports a history of hypothyroidism for which he has been non-compliant with medication for several months. His medical history also includes heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, chronic kidney disease stage 3, and dementia. On arrival, he is extremely lethargic, unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and only withdraws to painful stimuli.

Initial vital signs are: Temperature 90.1°F (32.3°C), Heart Rate 48 bpm, Blood Pressure 80/40 mmHg, Respiratory Rate 6 shallow breaths/minute, SpO2 82% on room air. Physical examination reveals cool, dry, doughy skin, generalized non-pitting edema, and severely diminished breath sounds bilaterally.

Given these findings, which of the following is the immediate priority nursing intervention?

Select an Answer
Rationale:
The patient's presentation, particularly the profoundly depressed respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minute and an SpO2 of 82% on room air, indicates impending respiratory failure and severe hypoxemia. Establishing a patent airway and providing ventilatory support (e.g., with a bag-valve mask, progressing to endotracheal intubation) is the absolute immediate priority in any patient with severe altered mental status and respiratory compromise, irrespective of the underlying etiology like myxedema coma. This intervention directly addresses the critical threat to oxygenation and ventilation, which precedes all other interventions.

While addressing hypotension with fluid resuscitation, hypothermia with rewarming, and initiating specific pharmacologic treatment for myxedema coma (hydrocortisone, levothyroxine) are crucial components of comprehensive management, none supersede the immediate need to secure the airway and ensure adequate breathing and oxygenation. Without adequate ventilation, other interventions will be ineffective or delayed in their benefit. The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) always dictate the sequence of emergency interventions, with a compromised airway or breathing taking precedence over circulatory support or definitive pharmacotherapy.